Aptitude - Discounts Online Quiz



Following quiz provides Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) related to Discounts. You will have to read all the given answers and click over the correct answer. If you are not sure about the answer then you can check the answer using Show Answer button. You can use Next Quiz button to check new set of questions in the quiz.

Questions and Answers

Q 1 - The true discount and the simple interest on a certain sum for a given time and at a given rate are Rs. 240 and Rs. 160 respectively. The sum is:

A - 375

B - 400

C - 430

D - 480

Answer : D

Explanation

Sum =( S.I * T.D )/(S.I - T.D)=( 240 * 160 )/(240-160)=480

Q 2 - The true discount on Rs. 5124 due 2 months hence is Rs. 244. The rate percent is:

A - 10%

B - 20%

C - 22%

D - 30%

Answer : D

Explanation

Present worth = Rs. (5124 - 244) = Rs. 4880.
S.I. on Rs. 4880 for 2 months is Rs. 244.
R=( 100*TD)/PW*T=( 100*244)/(4880*(2/12)) =30%

Q 3 - The present worth of a sum due sometime hence is Rs. 1024 and the banker's gain is Rs.64. The true discount is:

A - Rs. 256

B - Rs. 125

C - Rs. 64

D - Rs. 32

Answer : A

Explanation

T.D. = √(P.W.x B.G.)
=√(1024x64.)
=Rs. 256

Q 4 - Ramesh has to pay Rs. 440 to Suresh after 1 year. Suresh asks Ramesh to pay Rs. 220 in cash and defer the payment of Rs. 220 for 2 years. Ramesh agrees to it. If the rate of interest be 10% per annum, in this mode of payment:

A - Ramesh Loss Rs. 3.33

B - Ramesh Gain Rs. 3.33

C - Suresh Loss Rs. 22

D - Suresh Gain Rs. 22

Answer : A

Explanation

Ramesh has to pay = Present worth of Rs. 440 due 1 year hence =Rs.  440 * 100/( 100+(10*1))=Rs. 400.
Ramesh actually pays = Rs. 220 + Present worth of Rs. 220 due 2 year hence =220+220*100/( 100+(10*2))=403.33
 So Ramesh Loss = Rs. (400-403.33) = Rs. 3.33

Q 5 - A man wants to sell his bike. There are two offers, one at Rs. 24,000 cash and the other a credit of Rs. 25,760 to be paid after 6 months, money being at 20% per annum. Which is the better offer?

A - Rs 25,760 at credit

B - Rs. 24,000 in cash

C - Both are equally good

D - Inadequate data

Answer : B

Explanation

Present worth of 25,760 due 6 months hence=25760*100/( 100+(20*6/12))=Rs. 23418
So he should take cash.

Q 6 - The genuine markdown on an aggregate due 3 years consequently at 8% p.a. is Rs 252. The total due is:

A - Rs 798

B - Rs 1050

C - Rs 1302

D - None of these

Answer : C

Explanation

P.W. = (100*T.D.)/(R*T) = Rs ((100*252))/((8*3)) = Rs 1050
Sum due = (P.W.)+(T.D.) = Rs (1050+252) = Rs 1302

Q 7 - The genuine rebate on Rs 2580 due after some time at 6% p.a. is Rs 180. After what amount of time is the aggregate due?

A - 5 months

B - 4 months

C - 1 year 3 months

D - 1 year 4 months

Answer : C

Explanation

P.W. = Rs (2580-180) = Rs. 2400
S.I. on Rs 2400 at 6% p.a. is Rs. 180
∴ Time = ((100*180))/((2400*6)) years =5/4 years = 1 year 3 months.

Q 8 - A man bought dairy animals for Rs 3000 in real money and sold it that day for Rs 3660 due 2 years consequently. In the event that the rate of hobby is 10% p.a., the man picks up:

A - 0%

B - 5%

C - 7.5%

D - None of these

Answer : D

Explanation

C.P. = Rs 3000
S.P. = P.W. of Rs 3660 due years hence
= Rs  ((100*3660))/(100+(10*2))=Rs ((100*3660))/120 = Rs 3050
∴ Gain% = (50/3000*100)% = 5/3%

Q 9 - On the off chance that Rs 10 be permitted as genuine rebate on a bill of Rs 110 due toward the end of a sure time, then the markdown permitted on the same total due toward the end of twofold the time is:

A - Rs 20

B - Rs 21.81

C - Rs 18.33

D - Rs 22

Answer : C

Explanation

S.I. on Rs (110-10) for a fixed time = Rs. 10
S.I. on Rs. 100 for double the time Rs. = 20
T.D. on Rs 120- Rs 20
T.D. on Rs 110 = Rs (20/120*100) = Rs 55/3 = Rs. 18.33

Q 10 - A needs to pay Rs 1573 to B following 11/2 years and B needs to pay Rs 1444.50 to A following 6 months. In the event that the rate of hobby is 14% for each annum and both need to settle the record at this time, who will pay to the next and what amount?

A - A, Rs 28.50

B - B, Rs 37.50

C - A, Rs 50

D - B, Rs 50

Answer : D

Explanation

P.W. of loan on A = Rs ((100*1573))/(100+(14*2/3) )= Rs ((100*1573))/121= Rs 1300
P.W. of loan on B = Rs ((100*1444.50))/(100+(14*1/2) )= Rs ((144450))/103= Rs 1350
So, B will pay Rs. 50
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